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Dr. MacArthur is continuing his series. We have commented on other parts of this series here and here.
Dr. MacArthur is continuing his series. We have commented on other parts of this series here and here.
This is a troubling presentation. First, Dr. MacArthur completely misrepresents various Scriptures, especially regarding "The Word." We love and honor the Scriptures, so please don't think we are minimizing them. But just to be clear, the Bible itself almost never refers to the Word as Scripture. When God speaks, generally this is the Word of God speaking. That is, His speaking is a person, titled the Word of God, the pre-incarnate Jesus.
The Son is the Word, and the Bible is the written Word of God. But the Son, the Word, and the Bible are not interchangeable. The Son exists independently from His titles. His Word exists independently from what has been written down. And what has been written down does not address the totality of what He has said.
The Word is the things God speaks through His Word Jesus. The Bible is a record of some of that Word, just like a book is a record of some of its author's thoughts. Jesus Himself as a person is both the pinnacle of God's communication as well as the vehicle of His communication in these last days (He. 1:1-2).
God is recorded as having written only three things: The ten commandments (Ex. 31:18), on Belshazzar's wall (Da. 5:5), and in the dirt (Jn. 8:6). Every other message from God is by Him speaking. This speaking is known as prophecy. Prophecy is God speaking His Word to man. Everything we know about God is because He revealed it by speaking.
Some of that speaking was written down and collected together into what we call the Bible. The entire Bible is composed of God speaking His Word. There is nothing in the Bible that was not spoken by God. Certainly the Bible records the words of people who spoke, and even the words of spiritual entities, both good and evil, but even those words are in the Bible because of God's intention.
Second, Dr. MacArthur wants there to be a difference between illumination and revelation. The former is for contemporary believers, but the latter is only for the apostles 2000 years ago. We believe this is incorrect.
The Greek word "illumination" is
phótizó, bring to light, make evident, reveal
We find the word here, translated "enlightened:"
Ep. 1:17-18 I keep asking that the God of our Lord Jesus Christ, the glorious Father, may give you the Spirit of wisdom and revelation, so that you may know him better. 18 I pray also that the eyes of your heart may be enlightened in order that you may know...
Notice that Paul also uses the word "revelation" in this passage. That word is
apokalupsis, revelation, unveiling
So Paul uses BOTH words in his prayer for the Ephesian church. He wants them illumined and he wants them to have the Spirit of revelation. And both things are so that they will "know." Lest we think that Paul was not referring to direct revelation, later in his letter he writes:
Ep. 3:2 Surely you have heard about the administration of God’s grace that was given to me for you, 3 that is, the mystery made known to me by revelation...
This passage uses the same word, apokalupsis. Here Paul wants the Ephesian church understand the revelation he was given, which happens to be the same word he applied to them in Ep. 1:17-18 regarding THEIR understanding. Thus it is clear that Paul does not claim that receiving revelation was unique to him. He wants the Ephesian church to have revelation like he did.
With these things clearly in mind, we will be able to see the profound errors of Dr. MacArthur's presentation.
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